Pesachim 9b ~ Talmudic Probability Theory

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Our new tractate Pesachim, deals with all things Paschal. (Well, nearly all). What happens if there were nine piles of matzah and one pile of forbidden leavened bread known as chametz, and along came a mouse and took a piece from one of the piles and carried it into a house that had already been searched for chametz. Must the house be searched a second time? To find an answer, the Talmud quotes a Baraiasa that deals with an analogous question.

פסחים ט, ב 

דִּתְנַן: תֵּשַׁע חֲנוּיוֹת, כּוּלָּן מוֹכְרִין בְּשַׂר שְׁחוּטָה, וְאַחַת מוֹכֶרֶת בְּשַׂר נְבֵלָה, וְלָקַח מֵאַחַת מֵהֶן, וְאֵינוֹ יוֹדֵעַ מֵאֵיזֶה מֵהֶן לָקַח — סְפֵיקוֹ אָסוּר.

With regard to nine stores in a city, all of which sell kosher meat from a slaughtered animal, and one other store that sells meat from unslaughtered animal carcasses, and a person took meat from one of them and he does not know from which one he took the meat, in this case of uncertainty, the meat is prohibited.

וּבַנִּמְצָא — הַלֵּךְ אַחַר הָרוֹב

And in the case of meat found outside, follow the majority.

What this boils down to is this. If most stores in the city sell kosher meat then a piece of meat that is found in the city (that is “outside”) is assumed to be kosher, since the majority of the stores sell only kosher meat. But if a person bought meat from one of the ten stores, but he cannot recall whether or not it was from a kosher store, the meat may not be eaten. In this latter case, we assume that there were simply an equal number of kosher and non-kosher stores. There is a 50-50 chance that the meat comes from a non-kosher store, and it may not be eaten.

By analogy, if the mouse took the morsel from one of the piles, the legal status of the morsel is that of an equally balanced uncertainty concerning whether it was taken from a pile of matzah or a pile of chametz. Consequently, the owner is required to go back and search the house all over again.

Talmudic Probability

As Dov Gabbay and Moshe Koppel noted in their 2011 paper, there is something odd about talmudic probability. If we find some meat in an area where there are p kosher stores and q non-kosher stores, then all other things being equal, the meat is kosher if and only if p > q.This is clear from the parallel text in Hullin (11a) where the underlying principal is described as זיל בתר רובא – follow the majority. Or as Gabbay and Koppel explain it:

Given a set of objects the majority of which have the property P and the rest of which have the property not-P, we may, under certain circumstances, regard the set itself and/or any object in the set as having property P.

In other words, what happens is that if there are more kosher stores than there are non-kosher, the meat is considered to have become kosher. It's not that the meat is most likely to be kosher and may therefore be eaten.  Rather it takes on the property of being kosher

We encountered another example of talmudic probability theory when we studied the tractate Ketuvot. There, a newly-wed husband claims that his wife was not a virgin on her wedding night. The Talmud argues that his claim needs to be set into a context of probabilities:

  1. She was raped before her betrothal.

  2. She was raped after her betrothal.

  3. She had intercourse of her own free will before her betrothal.

  4. She had intercourse of her own free will after her betrothal.

Since it is only the last of these that renders her forbidden to her husband (stay focussed and don't raise the question of a husband who is a Cohen), the husband's claim is not supported, based on the probabilities. Here is how Gubbay and Koppel explain the case - using formal logic:

 
Detail from Gabbay paper.jpg
 

Oh, and the reference to Bertrand's paradox? That is the paradox in which some questions about probability - even ones that seem to be entirely mathematical, have more than one correct solution; it all depends on how you think about the answer. One if its formulations goes like this: Given a circle, find the probability that a chord chosen at random will be longer than the side of an inscribed equilateral triangle. Turns out there are three correct solutions. Gubbay and Koppel claim that just like that paradox, the solution to many talmudic questions of probability will have more than one correct answer, depending on how you think about that answer.

Rabbi Nahum Eliezer Rabinovitch, who died in May of this year at the age of 92 was the Rosh Yeshiva of the hesder Yeshivah Birkat Moshe in Ma'ale Adumim.  (He also had a PhD. in the Philosophy of Science from the University of Toronto, published in 1973 as Probability and Statistical Inference in Ancient and Medieval Jewish Literature.)  Rabbi Rabinovitch seems to have been the first to point out the relationship between Bertrand's paradox and talmudic probability theory in his 1970 Biometrika paper Combinations and Probability in Rabbinic Literature. There, the Rosh Yeshiva wrote that "the rabbis had some awareness of the different conceptions of probability as a measure of relative frequencies or a state of general ignorance."

James Franklin, in his book on the history of probability theory, notes that codes like the Talmud (and the Roman Digest that was developed under Justine c.533) "provide examples of how to evaluate evidence in cases of doubt and conflict.  By and large, they do so reasonably. But they are almost entirely devoid of discussion on the principles on which they are operating." But it is unfair to expect the Talmud to have developed a notion of probability theory as we have it today. That wasn't its interest or focus. Others have picked up this task, and have explained the statistics that is the foundation of  talmudic probability. For this, we have many to thank, including the late mathematician and Rosh Yeshiva, Rabbi Rabinovitch.

(The [Roman] Digest and) the Talmud are huge storehouses of concepts, and to be required to have an even sketchy idea of them is a powerful stimulus to learning abstractions.
— James Franklin. The Science of Conjecture: Evidence and Probability Before Pascal, 349.
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Eruvin 100b ~ Spousal Rape

After a discussion about walking on grass on Shabbat, the Talmud switches to another topic entirely. Spousal rape:

עירובין ק, ב

ואמר רמי בר חמא אמר רב אסי אסור לאדם שיכוף אשתו לדבר מצוה שנאמר ואץ ברגלים חוטא

Rami bar Chamah said in the name of Rav Asi: It is prohibited for a man to force his wife in the conjugal mitzvah, [i.e., sexual relations,] as it is stated: “And he who hastens with his feet sins” (Proverbs 19:2). [The term “his feet” is understood here as a euphemism for intercourse.]

 
No means No image.jpeg
 

This statement of Rav Asi is codified in all of the major codes of Jewish law. And as we will see, it is cited in a decision of the Israeli Supreme Court which ruled spousal rape to be, well, rape. First, Maimonides, in his Mishnah Torah:

משנה תורה, הלכות דעות ה׳:ד׳

וְלֹא יֶאֱנֹס אוֹתָהּ וְהִיא אֵינָהּ רוֹצָה אֶלָּא בִּרְצוֹן שְׁנֵיהֶם וּבְשִׂמְחָתָם

A husband may not force himself sexually on his wife, if she does not consent. Rather [intercourse] should be with the consent and happiness of both husband and wife…

The Shulchan Aruch (Code of Jewish Law) addresses this in two separate rulings:

שולחן ערוך אבן אורח חיים ר״מ:י׳

אם הי' לו כעס עמה אסור לשמש עד שיפייסנה ויכול לספר עמה קודם תשמיש כדי לרצות

A man is forbidden to have intercourse with his wife if he is angry with her…

שולחן ערוך אבן העזר כ״ה:ב׳

ולא יבעול אלא מרצונה ואם אינה מרוצה יפייסנה עד שתתרצה

He may not have intercourse without her consent, and if she is not interested he should appease her until she is interested.

A History of Spousal Rape Law

So spousal rape (also called marital rape) has been forbidden in Judaism since talmudic times. But other legal traditions did not consider it a crime until recently. Take for example, criminal law in England, as outlined in The History of the Pleas of the Crown (vol. 1, ch. 58, p. 629), written by Lord Hale and published in 1736.

But the husband cannot be guilty of a rape committed by himself upon his lawful wife, for by their mutual matrimonial consent and contract the wife hath given up herself in this kind unto her husband, which she cannot retract.

Hale had died 60 years earlier, but as Chief Justice his words reflected common law of the time. It remained the law of the land until it was formally overturned by a ruling in Britain’s House of Lords in 1992, which found that there were no grounds against “declaring that in modern times the supposed marital exemption in rape forms no part of the law of England.”

The remaining and no less difficult question is whether, despite that view, this is an area where the court should step aside to leave the matter to the Parliamentary process. This is not the creation of a new offence, it is the removal of a common law fiction which has become anachronistic and offensive and we consider that it is our duty having reached that conclusion to act upon it.
— R. v R [1991] UKHL 12. House of Lords. (23 October 1991)

Spousal Rape In ameRican law

In 1962 the American penal code still exempted spousal rape as a crime. Back then a man could only be guilty of rape if the victim was “not his wife”:

§ 213.1. Rape and Related Offenses. (1) Rape. A male who has sexual intercourse with a female not his wife is guilty of rape if…

This changed over the next thirty years, and today spousal rape is recognized as a crime in all fifty states, although the circumstances and reporting requirements vary, and they are sometimes different to those in which the victim is not the spouse.

In New York for example, the exemption of spousal rape was ruled unconstitutional in 1984, in a ruling from the New York Court of Appeals. A man had forced sexual intercourse with his wife while they were separated (and after the wife had obtained a protection order from the court that required him to move out and remain away from the family home). The husband raised the spousal exception as a defense for rape. Here is part of the that ruling:

We find that there is no rational basis for distinguishing between marital rape and non-marital rape. The various rationales which have been asserted in defense of the exemption are either based upon archaic notions about the consent and property rights incident to marriage or are simply unable to withstand even the slightest scrutiny. We therefore declare the marital exemption for rape in the New York statute to be unconstitutional.

Spousal Rape in Israeli Law

In 1980 Israel’s Supreme Court ruled that spousal rape was a crime as heinous as any other kind of rape. One of the three justices, David Bechor (1910-2000) cited a number of Jewish sources, including Maimonides’ Mishnah Torah and the Shulchan Aruch. He also cited Ravi Asi on this page of Talmud, as well as a number of contemporary rabbis. Here is an excerpt of the opinion of Justice Bechor, and you can read the entire decision here.

...סקירת התלמוד מלמדדת אותנו, שקיון יחסי אישות באונס אינו מותר והנו בגדר עבירה...המסקנה אליה הגעתי, עולה בקנה אחד גם עם עקרונות היסוד של כבוד האישה כאדם חופשי ולא כשפחה, הנתונה לחסדי בעלה בעניין כה רגיש ועדין, עקרונות אשר, לדאבון הלב, לא מומשו בחקיקה ובפסיקה של מדינות נאורות ומתקדמת בעולם

A review of the Talmud teaches us that forced sexual relations are not  permitted and are unlawful…the conclusion at which I arrive is also in keeping with the fundamental principles that a woman is to be respected as a human being and not as a servant, who depends on her husband’s kindnesses in this sensitive area. Sadly, these principles have not been enshrined in the laws of many enlightened and advanced nations…

There are, regrettably, areas in which Jewish marital law has not caught up with modern notions of justice and equality. But on the subject of spousal rape Jewish law set a precedent which was adopted only hundreds of years later by modern western legal systems. Rav Asi’s ruling, cited by the Israeli Supreme Court, is succinct. No means no.

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